Abstract

In 2004, I published an article in the Journal of Biblical Literature in which I argued that περιβόλαιον in 1 Cor 11:15 means "testicle." In the same journal in 2011, Mark Goodacre wrote a critique challenging and contesting my translation not only in this passage but also in Euripides' Herc. fur. 1269. In this article, I respond to Goodacre's critique and offer additional arguments supporting the translation of περιβόλαιον as "testicle" in both passages. I rely on modern linguistic theory to demonstrate that context requires the meaning of "testicle" for περιβόλαιον in both 1 Cor 11:15 and Herc. fur. 1269. I conclude that my reading of περιβόλαιον as "testicle" makes better sense of the use of this term in both passages than any other proposed readings, including Goodacre's.

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